A smaller, honest set of original pharmacist questions with worked explanations.
Short answer: 12 original multiple-choice practice questions for pharmacists preparing for the DHA licensing exam, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. They are spread over eight pharmacy subjects. The pharmacist bank is smaller than the nurse and physician banks, and these questions are original, not real exam items.
About these questions
Every question here is original. Meddex wrote it for exam preparation. None is a real, recalled or leaked exam item, and none comes from DHA, Prometric, UAE University or the NIHS.
Meddex is independent and is not affiliated with DHA, Prometric, UAE University or the NIHS.
Clinical review of the question bank is not complete yet. Treat the explanations as study aids and check official guidance before you rely on a fact.
This is a sample, not the whole bank, and doing well on it does not predict an exam result.
The exam these questions prepare you for
DHA's CBT Guideline (cover "Updated - Sep 2026") lists 150 questions in a stated 3 hours for the Pharmacist title, with a pass score of 60 percent. DHA says the stated time includes registration and the process introduction, and that it can change the format or the pass score without updating the guideline, so confirm on DHA's own site. DHA does not state how many answer options its questions have or whether each has one best answer. Meddex practice items use four options with one best answer, as a practice format.
DHA lists the Pharmacist title under Allied Healthcare and prints fourteen coverage areas with no weights. Meddex groups related areas into eight pharmacy subjects. The app lets you practise by subject.
What this set covers
This set has 12 pharmacist questions drawn from 8 of eight subjects: calculations, pharmaceutics, pharmacokinetics, therapeutics, medicinal chemistry and supplements, toxicology, pharmaceutical care and medication safety, and pharmacy law and ethics.
Questions are spread across the subjects, so you meet each one rather than five of the same kind. The set is fixed and chosen by a simple rule, so the same questions appear every time you come back.
How to use these questions
Read the stem and cover the options if you can, then decide what you would do. Choose an answer before you press Show answer. If you were wrong, read the reason for your option as well as the correct one, and write down the idea you missed.
Answer all the questions once without looking.
Press Show answer one question at a time and read every explanation.
List the subjects where you missed two or more, then use the topic pages or the app to practise those.
Practice questions
Question 1
Pharmacy CalculationsMedium
You prepare a 1 in 10 trituration of a potent drug by mixing 1 g of drug with 9 g of diluent. A prescription requires 12 mg of the drug in each of 30 capsules. What mass of the trituration supplies the total drug needed?
AOption A: 3.6 g
BOption B: 10 g
COption C: 36 g
DOption D: 0.36 g
Show answer for question 1
Correct answer: A. 3.6 g
Total drug needed = 12 mg x 30 = 360 mg. The trituration is 1 g in 10 g = 100 mg/g. Mass of trituration = 360 / 100 = 3.6 g. The rest of the capsule fill is made up with diluent. Weighing 3.6 g is far more accurate than weighing 12 mg, which is why potent drugs are triturated.
Why B is wrong. 10 g takes the 10 in the ratio as the mass of trituration.
Why C is wrong. 36 g is a tenfold slip in the other direction.
Why D is wrong. 0.36 g is a tenfold slip in the strength of the trituration.
Topic: Active drug quantity from a trituration. Reference: Allen LV. The Art, Science, and Technology of Pharmaceutical Compounding; Ansel HC. Pharmaceutical Calculations
Question 2
Pharmaceutics, Biopharmaceutics & CompoundingEasy
A patient is prescribed an oral antifungal that is poorly water soluble and highly lipophilic, and the label says to take it with a fat-containing meal. What is the likely reason?
AOption A: Fat prevents the drug from being metabolised in the liver
BOption B: Dietary fat stimulates bile secretion, which improves solubilisation and absorption of the drug
COption C: Fat increases the rate of gastric emptying so the drug reaches the colon sooner and is lost in the faeces
DOption D: Fat in the meal neutralises gastric acid
Show answer for question 2
Correct answer: B. Dietary fat stimulates bile secretion, which improves solubilisation and absorption of the drug
For poorly soluble lipophilic drugs, a fatty meal stimulates the release of bile salts and lipids, which form mixed micelles that dissolve the drug and increase the amount available for absorption. This positive food effect is shown by some drugs, in contrast to others that are taken on an empty stomach (for example some penicillins and levothyroxine) because food reduces their absorption.
Why A is wrong. Fat does not stop hepatic metabolism.
Why C is wrong. Fat tends to slow gastric emptying, and faster transit is not the reason.
Why D is wrong. Fat does not significantly neutralise gastric acid.
Topic: Food effect on absorption of a lipophilic drug. Reference: Aulton ME, Taylor KMG. Aulton's Pharmaceutics: The Design and Manufacture of Medicines; Product information for the antifungal concerned (administration with food)
A weak acid has a pKa of 4.4. In the small intestine at pH 6.4, what is the approximate ratio of ionised to unionised drug?
AOption A: 10 : 1
BOption B: 100 : 1
COption C: 2 : 1
DOption D: 1 : 100
Show answer for question 3
Correct answer: B. 100 : 1
For a weak acid, pH - pKa = log (ionised / unionised). Here 6.4 - 4.4 = 2.0, so the ratio is 10^2 = 100 : 1 in favour of the ionised form. The drug is mainly ionised at that pH, although the small unionised fraction is the form that crosses membranes, and the large surface area of the small intestine still allows substantial absorption. At gastric pH 2.4 the ratio would be 1 : 100, favouring the unionised form.
Why A is wrong. 10 : 1 would apply to a difference of 1 pH unit.
Why C is wrong. 2 : 1 mistakes the pH difference for the ratio itself, rather than the logarithm of the ratio.
Why D is wrong. 1 : 100 is the ratio for a weak acid in the stomach at pH 2.4 and not at pH 6.4.
Topic: Ionisation of a weak acid using Henderson-Hasselbalch. Reference: Martin AN. Physical Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences (ionisation and pH); Aulton ME, Taylor KMG. Aulton's Pharmaceutics: The Design and Manufacture of Medicines
Question 4
Pharmacokinetics & PharmacogenomicsMedium
A patient of Han Chinese ancestry is about to start allopurinol for gout. Which pharmacogenomic action is recommended?
AOption A: Test for CYP2D6, and increase the dose if the patient is an ultrarapid metaboliser of allopurinol and has no side effects
BOption B: Test for DPYD and reduce the dose by half
COption C: No testing is useful, because HLA associations apply only to antiepileptic drugs
DOption D: Test for HLA-B*58:01 before starting, and use an alternative urate-lowering drug if the allele is present
Show answer for question 4
Correct answer: D. Test for HLA-B*58:01 before starting, and use an alternative urate-lowering drug if the allele is present
HLA-B*58:01 is strongly associated with severe cutaneous adverse reactions to allopurinol (Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, DRESS). The allele frequency is higher in people of Han Chinese, Thai and Korean ancestry, and also in some other groups, so guidelines recommend testing before starting allopurinol in such groups, and avoiding allopurinol in carriers (febuxostat or another option may be used, depending on cardiovascular risk). HLA associations are not restricted to antiepileptics.
Why A is wrong. CYP2D6 has no role in allopurinol hypersensitivity.
Why B is wrong. DPYD relates to fluoropyrimidines.
Why C is wrong. HLA associations occur with several drug classes, including abacavir and allopurinol.
Topic: HLA-B*58:01 and allopurinol. Reference: Clinical Pharmacogenetics Implementation Consortium (CPIC) guidelines: HLA-B and allopurinol; American College of Rheumatology guideline for the management of gout
Question 5
Clinical Pharmacology & TherapeuticsMedium
A 78-year-old man has taken omeprazole 40 mg daily for 5 years after an episode of mild reflux that settled. He now has muscle cramps, and his serum magnesium is low. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
AOption A: Switch to a different PPI at the same dose, which will not cause low magnesium because the effect is specific to omeprazole
BOption B: Add a calcium supplement and continue unchanged
COption C: Review the ongoing indication and step down or stop the PPI with a taper, and check and replace magnesium
DOption D: Double the omeprazole dose to treat the reflux more completely
Show answer for question 5
Correct answer: C. Review the ongoing indication and step down or stop the PPI with a taper, and check and replace magnesium
Long-term PPI use is associated with hypomagnesaemia, vitamin B12 deficiency, fractures, enteric infection including C. difficile and, rarely, interstitial nephritis. Many people stay on a PPI long after the original indication ends. Guidance recommends regular review, using the lowest effective dose and trial step-down with on-demand use, with a taper to limit rebound acid hypersecretion. Hypomagnesaemia is a class effect, so changing the PPI does not remove the risk.
Why A is wrong. Hypomagnesaemia is a class effect of PPIs, so another PPI at the same dose carries the same risk.
Why B is wrong. Calcium does not correct low magnesium, and the PPI would continue to cause it.
Why D is wrong. A higher dose increases exposure and the risk of further adverse effects.
Topic: Long-term PPI review. Reference: British National Formulary: proton pump inhibitors, adverse effects; American Gastroenterological Association clinical practice update on deprescribing PPIs
Which of these drugs is given as an ester prodrug that must be hydrolysed in the body to its active form?
AOption A: Enalapril
BOption B: Amlodipine
COption C: Furosemide
DOption D: Atenolol
Show answer for question 6
Correct answer: A. Enalapril
Enalapril is the ethyl ester of enalaprilat. The ester improves oral absorption, and esterases in the liver convert it to the active diacid, enalaprilat. Atenolol, amlodipine and furosemide are active as administered. Knowing which agents are prodrugs matters in severe liver disease, where activation can be reduced, and for interactions with enzyme inhibitors.
Why B is wrong. Amlodipine is active as given and is metabolised to inactive products.
Why C is wrong. Furosemide is active as given and acts from within the tubule.
Why D is wrong. Atenolol is active as given and is eliminated by the kidney largely unchanged.
Topic: Prodrugs requiring activation. Reference: Rang HP, Dale MM. Rang and Dale's Pharmacology (ACE inhibitors); Summary of Product Characteristics: enalapril
A patient who takes omeprazole daily is advised to start a calcium supplement for bone health. Which product choice and advice is the most appropriate?
AOption A: No supplement can be absorbed in a patient taking omeprazole
BOption B: Calcium carbonate on an empty stomach in a single large dose, which gives the highest peak absorption of calcium
COption C: Calcium citrate, or carbonate with meals in divided doses, since carbonate needs gastric acid to dissolve
DOption D: Calcium carbonate with an antacid to improve absorption
Show answer for question 7
Correct answer: C. Calcium citrate, or carbonate with meals in divided doses, since carbonate needs gastric acid to dissolve
Calcium carbonate needs an acid environment to dissolve, so its absorption falls on an empty stomach in a person with reduced gastric acid, as with a proton pump inhibitor. Calcium citrate does not depend on acid. Carbonate taken with food, which stimulates acid, works better. Absorption is also limited per dose, so it is better to divide total daily amounts. Antacids would further reduce acidity.
Why A is wrong. Absorption is reduced but not abolished, and suitable choices exist.
Why B is wrong. On an empty stomach carbonate is poorly absorbed when acid is suppressed.
Why D is wrong. An antacid would lower gastric acid further and reduce absorption.
Topic: Calcium carbonate in a patient taking a proton pump inhibitor. Reference: British National Formulary (BNF), appendix on interactions; Katzung. Basic and Clinical Pharmacology (calcium and bone mineral)
Question 8
Toxicology & Poisoning ManagementMedium
A toddler has swallowed a mouthful of lamp oil, which is a petroleum distillate, and is coughing. What is the main danger and the best advice?
AOption A: Severe hypoglycaemia, so give a sugary drink and wait for the child to recover at home over the next day
BOption B: Cyanide formation, so give hydroxocobalamin at home
COption C: Liver failure, so give activated charcoal at once
DOption D: Aspiration causing chemical pneumonitis, so do not induce vomiting and arrange medical assessment
Show answer for question 8
Correct answer: D. Aspiration causing chemical pneumonitis, so do not induce vomiting and arrange medical assessment
Low-viscosity hydrocarbons such as lamp oil, kerosene and petrol are poorly absorbed from the gut but spread easily over lung tissue if aspirated, causing chemical pneumonitis. Coughing or choking at the time of ingestion suggests aspiration. Inducing vomiting increases the risk, and charcoal adds little and may provoke vomiting. The child should be assessed, with observation and chest findings, oxygen saturation and sometimes a radiograph after several hours. Lamp oil is often kept in unlabelled bottles and attractive coloured containers, so child-resistant storage is a key counselling point.
Why A is wrong. Hypoglycaemia is not the main feature of hydrocarbon ingestion.
Why B is wrong. Cyanide formation is not a feature, and no antidote is needed at home.
Why C is wrong. Systemic liver toxicity is not the main risk, and charcoal is not helpful.
Topic: Hydrocarbon ingestion in a toddler. Reference: Goldfrank's Toxicologic Emergencies; Olson. Poisoning and Drug Overdose
Question 9
Pharmaceutical Care, OTC Medicines & Medication SafetyMedium
A 78-year-old man is discharged from hospital. His discharge list omits his long-term anticoagulant, with no note that it was stopped, and his GP record shows he has taken it for 3 years for atrial fibrillation. The patient is unsure what he was told. What should the pharmacist do?
AOption A: Assume it was stopped on purpose and remove it from his medication record without further checks
BOption B: Contact the prescriber to confirm whether the omission was intended, then act on the answer
COption C: Add it back to his list and supply it without checking, because it is a long-term drug
DOption D: Ask the patient to decide for himself whether to restart it, since he knows his own tablets best
Show answer for question 9
Correct answer: B. Contact the prescriber to confirm whether the omission was intended, then act on the answer
Unintentional omission of a regular medicine is one of the most common reconciliation errors after transfer of care, and stopping an anticoagulant in atrial fibrillation raises stroke risk. The rule is to verify an unexplained difference with the prescriber before acting, rather than assume either way, and to document the decision. The patient cannot be expected to make this decision without clinical information.
Why A is wrong. An unexplained omission is more often an error than a decision, and assuming stops protection against stroke.
Why C is wrong. Restarting without checking may be wrong if the drug was stopped for a bleed or procedure.
Why D is wrong. He does not have the information needed to make a safe choice.
Topic: Medication reconciliation after discharge. Reference: World Health Organization: High 5s Medication Reconciliation Standard Operating Protocol; National Institute for Health and Care Excellence: Medicines optimisation (NG5), reconciliation
Question 10
Pharmaceutical Care, OTC Medicines & Medication SafetyEasy
A pharmacy has had two near misses in which hydroxyzine was selected instead of hydralazine. Which action is most likely to prevent a further error?
AOption A: Remind all staff at a team meeting to be more careful when picking the two products from the shelf
BOption B: Store the two products apart, use tall-man lettering and add an independent barcode check at dispensing
COption C: Ask the patients to check the name on their own medicines when they collect them from the counter
DOption D: Keep both products together on the same shelf in alphabetical order so they are easy to find
Show answer for question 10
Correct answer: B. Store the two products apart, use tall-man lettering and add an independent barcode check at dispensing
Look-alike sound-alike names are a recognised system hazard. Reminders to be careful are weak, because they rely on memory. Stronger controls change the system: physical separation, tall-man lettering, barcode verification and an independent second check. Placing similar names next to each other increases selection errors, and patients cannot be the final safeguard.
Why A is wrong. Reminders alone are among the weakest controls and fade with time.
Why C is wrong. Patients cannot judge the name accuracy of an unfamiliar medicine.
Why D is wrong. Placing similar names side by side makes picking errors more likely.
Topic: Look-alike sound-alike error prevention. Reference: Institute for Safe Medication Practices: List of confused drug names; World Health Organization: Patient Safety Solutions, Look-alike, sound-alike medication names (2007)
Question 11
Pharmacy Law, Ethics & RegulationMedium
During a national shortage, a pharmacy has only five packs of a medicine for which eight patients have valid prescriptions. A close friend of the pharmacist is among them. Which approach best reflects the ethical principle of justice?
AOption A: Allocate according to agreed clinical need and urgency, not personal relationships, and tell the others honestly about the shortage and alternatives
BOption B: Give packs to the patients who are willing to pay the most
COption C: Give the packs to the friend first, since the pharmacist knows the friend best
DOption D: Give packs to whoever arrived first, even if their need is less urgent
Show answer for question 11
Correct answer: A. Allocate according to agreed clinical need and urgency, not personal relationships, and tell the others honestly about the shortage and alternatives
Justice requires fair distribution of limited resources by relevant criteria, such as clinical urgency, risk of harm from interruption of treatment and absence of alternatives, applied consistently and transparently. Personal relationships and ability to pay are not relevant. Pharmacists should liaise with prescribers about alternatives, and may follow national or professional shortage guidance. Disclosing a personal connection or asking a colleague to decide helps avoid a conflict of interest. First come, first served may be a fallback only when needs are equal.
Why B is wrong. Selling to the highest bidder disadvantages poorer patients and ignores need.
Why C is wrong. Favouring a friend is a conflict of interest and unfair.
Why D is wrong. Order of arrival ignores clinical urgency and may harm those in greater need.
Topic: Fair allocation of a scarce medicine. Reference: FIP. Code of Ethics for Pharmacists (International Pharmaceutical Federation); Beauchamp and Childress. Principles of Biomedical Ethics
Question 12
Pharmacy Law, Ethics & RegulationMedium
A pharmacist realises that she dispensed a tablet strength twice as high as prescribed, and the patient has taken two doses. What is the correct professional response?
AOption A: Wait until the patient returns, and then quietly swap the packs
BOption B: Contact the patient promptly, apologise, explain what happened and give clinical advice, arrange medical review if needed, and report and record the incident
COption C: Say nothing, since the patient seems well
DOption D: Blame the prescriber to avoid consequences
Show answer for question 12
Correct answer: B. Contact the patient promptly, apologise, explain what happened and give clinical advice, arrange medical review if needed, and report and record the incident
A duty of candour applies when an error reaches a patient. The patient should be told promptly and honestly, with an apology, the facts, the possible effects and the actions to take. Advice from the prescriber or a clinician is sought where there is a clinical risk. The error is recorded and reported through the internal system and to the regulator if required, and the cause is analysed to prevent recurrence. Concealment, secret replacement of stock or blaming others is dishonest and harms the patient's safety and trust.
Why A is wrong. Secretly swapping packs removes evidence and the patient is not informed.
Why C is wrong. Concealing an error denies the patient the information they need to stay safe.
Why D is wrong. Blaming the prescriber is dishonest, and the pharmacist is accountable for dispensing.
Topic: Disclosing a dispensing error that reached the patient. Reference: FIP. Code of Ethics for Pharmacists (International Pharmaceutical Federation); WHO. Patient safety curriculum guide, open disclosure and reporting
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Frequently asked questions
No. They are original practice questions written by Meddex for exam preparation. DHA does not publish sample questions, and its Assessment Manual says sharing assessment questions is not allowed, so we do not use or claim real or recalled items.
Yes, the calculation subject is part of the set, with the working shown in the explanation. Do the sum yourself before you reveal the answer.
No. It is a sample for practice and to spot gaps. Nothing here predicts a result. Practise across all subjects, review explanations and confirm exam details on the official sites.
No. Each question has a Show answer button. The answer, the explanation and the reason each wrong option is wrong are part of the page text, so they are there when you press it.
Not yet. Clinical review is still being arranged. Treat the explanations as study aids and check official guidance before you rely on a fact.