Original DHA-style nursing questions with explanations. Try them, then reveal the answer.
Short answer: 12 original multiple-choice practice questions for nurses preparing for the DHA licensing exam, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. They cover the ten Meddex nursing domains, are original and are not real exam items. Use them to practise reasoning, not to guess the paper.
About these questions
Every question here is original. Meddex wrote it for exam preparation. None is a real, recalled or leaked exam item, and none comes from DHA, Prometric, UAE University or the NIHS.
Meddex is independent and is not affiliated with DHA, Prometric, UAE University or the NIHS.
Clinical review of the question bank is not complete yet. Treat the explanations as study aids and check official guidance before you rely on a fact.
This is a sample, not the whole bank, and doing well on it does not predict an exam result.
The exam these questions prepare you for
DHA's CBT Guideline (cover "Updated - Sep 2026") lists 150 questions in a stated 3 hours for the Registered Nurse title, with a pass score of 50 percent. DHA says the stated time includes registration and the process introduction, and that it can change the format or the pass score without updating the guideline, so confirm on DHA's own site. DHA does not state how many answer options its questions have or whether each has one best answer. Meddex practice items use four options with one best answer, as a practice format.
DHA lists four coverage headings for Registered Nurse: Unit Management and Leadership, Fundamentals, Maternal-Child Nursing and Adult Nursing. It publishes no weights. Meddex groups its nursing questions into ten domains of its own, which are shown on the topic pages, so a Meddex topic is not a DHA heading.
What this set covers
This set has 12 nursing questions drawn from 10 of the ten Meddex domains: patient safety, infection control, pharmacology, medical-surgical care, cardio-respiratory care, emergency care, maternal and child health, mental health, ethics and law, and public health.
Questions are spread across the subjects, so you meet each one rather than five of the same kind. The set is fixed and chosen by a simple rule, so the same questions appear every time you come back.
How to use these questions
Read the stem and cover the options if you can, then decide what you would do. Choose an answer before you press Show answer. If you were wrong, read the reason for your option as well as the correct one, and write down the idea you missed.
Answer all the questions once without looking.
Press Show answer one question at a time and read every explanation.
List the subjects where you missed two or more, then use the topic pages or the app to practise those.
Practice questions
Question 1
Fundamentals & Patient SafetyMedium
A surgeon asks a nurse to witness a patient's signature on a surgical consent form. As the nurse prepares to sign, the patient asks, 'Will I need a blood transfusion? Nobody told me.' What is the best action?
AOption A: Explain the transfusion risk in detail yourself, as the nurse knows the surgeon's usual practice, and then continue to witness the signature
BOption B: Pause the signing and inform the surgeon so that the question is answered before consent is confirmed
COption C: Ask the patient to cross out the question and sign again without raising it
DOption D: Sign as witness because the patient has already signed, and answer later during recovery
Show answer for question 1
Correct answer: B. Pause the signing and inform the surgeon so that the question is answered before consent is confirmed
Informed consent is the responsibility of the clinician performing the procedure. A witness confirms the signature but also has a duty to speak up if it seems the patient does not understand or has unanswered questions. The nurse pauses and asks the surgeon to address the concern first.
Why A is wrong. Giving a detailed answer outside the nurse's role risks incomplete or inaccurate information.
Why C is wrong. Discouraging a question undermines the patient's right to be informed.
Why D is wrong. Witnessing now would endorse consent that is not fully informed.
Topic: Consent - role when asked to witness a form. Reference: General Medical Council: Decision making and consent; Potter and Perry Fundamentals of Nursing: Informed consent
Question 2
Infection Prevention & ControlMedium
Blood from a patient splashes into a nurse's eye. What is the BEST immediate action?
AOption A: Wait for two days to see whether symptoms develop before reporting to occupational health
BOption B: Irrigate the eye gently with running water or saline, then report to occupational health
COption C: Apply povidone-iodine antiseptic to the eye and report at the end of the shift
DOption D: Rub the eye to remove the blood, rinse once briefly and return to work if it settles
Show answer for question 2
Correct answer: B. Irrigate the eye gently with running water or saline, then report to occupational health
Immediate irrigation dilutes and removes infectious material. The eye is flushed gently with water or saline, with any contact lenses removed first, and the exposure is then reported so the source can be assessed and post-exposure prophylaxis considered. Antiseptics and rubbing damage the eye.
Why A is wrong. Delay reduces the benefit of prophylaxis and breaches reporting requirements.
Why C is wrong. Antiseptics are toxic to the eye and are not used for ocular splashes.
Why D is wrong. Rubbing can abrade the cornea and spreads contamination, and a brief rinse is insufficient.
Topic: Splash exposure. Reference: CDC Management of occupational exposures to bloodborne pathogens; WHO Guidelines on post-exposure prophylaxis
Question 3
Pharmacology & Medication SafetyMedium
A nurse teaches a patient who has started a fentanyl 72-hour skin patch for cancer pain. Which statement by the patient shows that more teaching is needed?
AOption A: I will remove the old patch before I apply each new patch
BOption B: I will use a heating pad over the patch on cold days
COption C: I will choose a different area of skin each time I change the patch
DOption D: I will fold used patches in half, sticky sides together, before disposal
Show answer for question 3
Correct answer: B. I will use a heating pad over the patch on cold days
Heat over a fentanyl patch, such as a heating pad, electric blanket or hot bath, increases skin absorption and can cause overdose with sedation and slow breathing. Patients also remove the old patch before applying a new one, rotate sites, and fold used patches so that children and pets cannot be exposed.
Why A is wrong. This is correct: leaving the old patch on while applying another delivers a double dose.
Why C is wrong. This is correct: rotating sites protects the skin and keeps absorption steady.
Why D is wrong. This is correct: folding the used patch sticky sides together prevents accidental contact or ingestion.
Topic: Opioid - transdermal fentanyl patch teaching evaluation. Reference: BNF: Fentanyl; Lewis Medical-Surgical Nursing: Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems
Question 4
Medical-Surgical & Chronic DiseaseMedium
A 78-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation takes no anticoagulant. She has sudden severe pain in her left leg. The leg is pale, cold and numb below the knee, and no foot pulses can be felt. What is the priority nursing action?
AOption A: Alert the vascular team now, keep her nil by mouth and expect intravenous heparin
BOption B: Wrap the leg in warm blankets with a heat pad on the foot and recheck it in an hour
COption C: Raise the leg above heart level and massage the calf firmly to restore the circulation
DOption D: Book an outpatient arterial Doppler study within the week and give her a leaflet
Show answer for question 4
Correct answer: A. Alert the vascular team now, keep her nil by mouth and expect intravenous heparin
A sudden cold, pale, painful, numb leg without pulses is acute limb ischaemia, probably from an embolus in atrial fibrillation. It is a limb-threatening emergency that needs immediate vascular review and early heparin to prevent clot extension, and she is kept nil by mouth in case of urgent surgery. Heat can burn ischaemic skin, and massage can dislodge clot.
Why B is wrong. Heat on ischaemic skin can burn it, and an hour is too long to wait.
Why C is wrong. Raising the leg reduces arterial flow further, and massage risks moving clot.
Why D is wrong. A delay of days would allow the limb to become unsalvageable.
Topic: Peripheral arterial disease: acute limb ischaemia from an embolus. Reference: Björck M et al. Editor's choice: European Society for Vascular Surgery 2020 clinical practice guidelines on the management of acute limb ischaemia. Eur J Vasc Endovasc Surg 2020;59:173-218
Question 5
Cardiovascular & RespiratoryMedium
A man returns to the ward two hours after primary PCI through the right radial artery, with a compression band in place. The forearm above the band is becoming swollen and tight, and he reports increasing aching. His hand is warm with a palpable radial pulse. What should the nurse do first?
AOption A: Massage the swelling gently to disperse the blood and improve flow to the hand
BOption B: Give the next antiplatelet dose and review the arm at the next routine observations
COption C: Re-inflate the band or press firmly over the site, mark the swelling and call the cardiologist
DOption D: Remove the compression band completely and keep the arm raised above heart level until the swelling settles
Show answer for question 5
Correct answer: C. Re-inflate the band or press firmly over the site, mark the swelling and call the cardiologist
A radial haematoma can expand and compress the forearm, and rarely causes compartment syndrome. The priorities are immediate haemostasis by direct pressure or band re-inflation, marking the margins, checking hand perfusion, sensation and pulse, and urgent review by the operator. The nurse does not stop antiplatelet drugs alone.
Why A is wrong. Massage can disrupt the clot and enlarge the haematoma, and it does not stop the bleeding.
Why B is wrong. Expanding bleeding needs control now, and waiting for routine observations lets the haematoma grow.
Why D is wrong. Removing the band takes away haemostasis, so the haematoma would expand and threaten the hand.
Topic: Acute coronary syndrome: radial access site haematoma. Reference: 2023 ESC Guidelines for the management of acute coronary syndromes; NICE NG185 Acute coronary syndromes
Question 6
Cardiovascular & RespiratoryMedium
A nurse teaches a man two weeks after a myocardial infarction and stent insertion. Which statement by the patient shows that he has understood his recovery plan?
AOption A: "I will avoid all exercise for three months so that my heart can heal properly."
BOption B: "I will build up my walking gradually and rest if chest pain or breathlessness starts."
COption C: "I can stop the statin once my cholesterol blood test comes back in the normal range."
DOption D: "I will stop the aspirin and the other tablets as soon as I feel fully well."
Show answer for question 6
Correct answer: B. "I will build up my walking gradually and rest if chest pain or breathlessness starts."
Cardiac rehabilitation encourages graded, symptom-guided activity soon after infarction. Antiplatelets, beta-blockers and statins are long-term secondary prevention and must not be stopped because the patient feels well or a result is normal, since the normal result reflects the drug working.
Why A is wrong. Prolonged rest causes deconditioning, and structured gradual exercise is advised after the early recovery period.
Why C is wrong. A normal cholesterol result is the effect of the statin, and stopping it would let levels and risk rise again.
Why D is wrong. Stopping antiplatelet therapy early risks stent thrombosis, and the other drugs also protect against another infarction.
Topic: Acute coronary syndrome: recovery teaching evaluation. Reference: NICE NG185 Acute coronary syndromes; British Association for Cardiovascular Prevention and Rehabilitation: standards and core components
Question 7
Emergency & Critical CareMedium
At the start of a night shift in the emergency department, four patients are waiting. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
AOption A: A 30-year-old man with a closed femur fracture, pain 8/10, HR 98/min and BP 124/78 mmHg
BOption B: A 7-year-old with a temperature of 39.2 degrees C who is alert and drinking well
COption C: A 68-year-old man with COPD, RR 8/min, SpO2 82% on room air and drowsiness
DOption D: A 45-year-old woman with chest pain that has settled and a normal ECG
Show answer for question 7
Correct answer: C. A 68-year-old man with COPD, RR 8/min, SpO2 82% on room air and drowsiness
Airway and breathing take priority over circulation, pain and comfort. A drowsy patient with COPD, slow breathing and severe hypoxaemia is at risk of respiratory failure and arrest, so he is assessed and treated first.
Why A is wrong. The femur fracture needs analgesia and splinting, but he is currently haemodynamically stable.
Why B is wrong. The febrile child is alert and drinking, which suggests a stable condition.
Why D is wrong. Chest pain that has settled with a normal ECG is lower priority, though serial testing is still needed.
Topic: Airway and breathing priority among patients. Reference: Emergency Triage Education Kit (Australian Government Department of Health); Resuscitation Council UK ABCDE approach
Question 8
Maternal & Child HealthEasy
The mother of a 3-year-old with a temperature of 38.8 C from a probable viral illness asks the nurse how to use paracetamol. The child is alert, playing, drinking well and passing urine, and no red-flag features were found at assessment. What should the nurse advise?
AOption A: Give paracetamol or ibuprofen only if she seems distressed, and keep offering fluids
BOption B: Give paracetamol every four hours around the clock to keep the temperature under 37.5 C
COption C: Sponge her with tepid water for 20 minutes to bring the temperature down
DOption D: Give paracetamol and ibuprofen together at every dose so that the fever falls quickly
Show answer for question 8
Correct answer: A. Give paracetamol or ibuprofen only if she seems distressed, and keep offering fluids
For a child with fever, treatment is aimed at comfort rather than at the number on the thermometer. NICE advises against giving antipyretics with the sole aim of reducing temperature, and against using tepid sponging. Paracetamol or ibuprofen can be considered if the child is distressed, using one agent and not both at once. The nurse also gives safety-net advice on warning signs, fluids and when to seek urgent help.
Why B is wrong. Round-the-clock dosing to hit a target temperature is not needed and adds risk of overdose.
Why C is wrong. Tepid sponging is not recommended and may be distressing.
Why D is wrong. Giving both drugs together at every dose is not recommended and raises the risk of dosing error and harm.
Topic: Fever in a young child - paracetamol and ibuprofen advice. Reference: NICE NG143 Fever in under 5s: assessment and initial management; Hockenberry and Wilson: Wong's Essentials of Pediatric Nursing
Question 9
Mental Health & NeurologyMedium
A patient admitted 36 hours ago with a history of heavy alcohol use is sweating, tremulous, anxious and has a heart rate of 112. What is the MOST appropriate nursing action?
AOption A: Restrict visitors and fluids to limit stimulation and the risk of vomiting or seizures
BOption B: Assess withdrawal severity with a validated scale and report the findings to the prescriber
COption C: Offer strong coffee to reduce drowsiness and encourage him to walk around the ward
DOption D: Leave the patient to sleep and check again at the end of the shift for any change
Show answer for question 9
Correct answer: B. Assess withdrawal severity with a validated scale and report the findings to the prescriber
Autonomic signs at 24 to 48 hours indicate alcohol withdrawal that can progress to seizures or delirium tremens. The nurse should assess severity with a scale such as CIWA-Ar and escalate for symptom-triggered medication. Stimulants, delayed review and fluid restriction are unsafe.
Why A is wrong. Fluid restriction is inappropriate because hydration is part of care, and reducing visitors does not treat withdrawal.
Why C is wrong. Caffeine worsens tremor, anxiety and tachycardia and does not treat withdrawal.
Why D is wrong. Leaving the patient unobserved for a whole shift risks missed progression to seizures or delirium tremens.
Topic: Alcohol withdrawal. Reference: NICE Alcohol-use disorders: diagnosis and management of physical complications; WHO mhGAP Intervention Guide
Question 10
Ethics, Law & ProfessionalismMedium
At the start of a night shift, a nurse is allocated 14 acutely ill patients because of staff sickness. She believes she cannot care for them safely. What is the most appropriate action?
AOption A: Start the shift and write a complaint to the manager at the end of the week
BOption B: Accept the allocation and attend only to the patients who call for help
COption C: Leave the unit at once, because the allocation breaches her professional duty
DOption D: Tell the nurse in charge about the risk, ask for help, and report it
Show answer for question 10
Correct answer: D. Tell the nurse in charge about the risk, ask for help, and report it
A nurse who believes an allocation is unsafe raises the specific concern with the nurse in charge before taking over, asks for help or reallocation, and reports it through the incident system so the risk is recorded. Silently accepting leaves patients at risk, and walking out abandons them.
Why A is wrong. A complaint a week later does nothing for the patients in the unit tonight.
Why B is wrong. Responding only to calls leaves unmonitored patients at risk and hides the problem.
Why C is wrong. Leaving the unit without handing over is abandonment and puts patients at greater risk.
Topic: Professional conduct - an unsafe patient allocation. Reference: Potter and Perry Fundamentals of Nursing; WHO Patient Safety Curriculum Guide: Multi-professional Edition
Question 11
Ethics, Law & ProfessionalismMedium
A nurse who has just finished a third consecutive 12-hour night shift is asked by the manager to cover another shift. She is exhausted and has made two small errors this week. What is the MOST appropriate action?
AOption A: Decline politely, explain the fatigue risk and escalate so the manager can arrange other cover
BOption B: Accept, because staffing shortages justify extra hours and patients would otherwise be left without a nurse
COption C: Agree and call in sick halfway through the shift
DOption D: Accept but take extra care and double-check everything
Show answer for question 11
Correct answer: A. Decline politely, explain the fatigue risk and escalate so the manager can arrange other cover
Nurses have a duty to practise safely and not work when impaired by fatigue, which raises the risk of errors and harm. The appropriate response is to explain the concern, decline and share the safety risk through the escalation route so the manager can arrange cover. Working while exhausted or leaving mid-shift endangers patients.
Why B is wrong. Staff shortage does not remove the duty to practise safely.
Why C is wrong. Leaving mid-shift leaves patients without cover and is unprofessional.
Why D is wrong. Extra care does not offset the effect of severe fatigue.
Topic: Fitness to practise: fatigue. Reference: ICN Code of Ethics for Nurses; NMC The Code: Practise effectively and safely
Question 12
Public Health & PreventionMedium
A nurse is restocking a clinic's vaccine refrigerator after a delivery. Which storage practice is correct?
AOption A: Pack them tightly against the back wall, next to the ice at the freezer plate
BOption B: Store them loose on the bottom shelf alongside staff food so that space is not wasted
COption C: Keep them in the door racks so that they are easy to reach during busy clinic sessions
DOption D: Place them on the central shelves in their original boxes, leaving gaps for air to circulate
Show answer for question 12
Correct answer: D. Place them on the central shelves in their original boxes, leaving gaps for air to circulate
Vaccines are stored at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius in the central shelves of a dedicated refrigerator, in their original packaging, with space between boxes for air flow. The door, the walls and the area near the freezer plate or ice are avoided because temperatures vary or fall below zero. Food and drink are never stored with vaccines, and temperature is checked and recorded each day.
Why A is wrong. Contact with the back wall or ice risks freezing, which destroys the potency of many vaccines.
Why B is wrong. Food and loose, unprotected vials interfere with temperature control and with light protection.
Why C is wrong. Door temperatures swing every time the door opens, so vaccines can be exposed to heat or cold.
Topic: Vaccine refrigerator storage practice. Reference: WHO Immunization in Practice; CDC Vaccine Storage and Handling Toolkit
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Frequently asked questions
No. They are original practice questions written by Meddex for exam preparation. DHA does not publish sample questions, and its Assessment Manual says sharing assessment questions is not allowed, so we do not use or claim real or recalled items.
No. A mock test is a full-length timed paper, and this is a short untimed set. Full-length timed mocks are in the app. The DHA exam for a Registered Nurse is 150 questions in a stated 3 hours, with a pass score of 50 percent in DHA's guideline.
No. The Registered Midwife exam is a separate DHA exam and midwifery is not covered yet. These questions are for nurses.
No. It is a sample for practice and to spot gaps. Nothing here predicts a result. Practise across all subjects, review explanations and confirm exam details on the official sites.
No. Each question has a Show answer button. The answer, the explanation and the reason each wrong option is wrong are part of the page text, so they are there when you press it.
Not yet. Clinical review is still being arranged. Treat the explanations as study aids and check official guidance before you rely on a fact.