A smaller, honest set of original dentist questions with explanations.
Short answer: 12 original multiple-choice practice questions for dentists preparing for the DHA licensing exam, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. They are spread over eight dental subjects. The dentist bank is smaller than the nurse and physician banks, and these questions are original, not real exam items.
About these questions
Every question here is original. Meddex wrote it for exam preparation. None is a real, recalled or leaked exam item, and none comes from DHA, Prometric, UAE University or the NIHS.
Meddex is independent and is not affiliated with DHA, Prometric, UAE University or the NIHS.
Clinical review of the question bank is not complete yet. Treat the explanations as study aids and check official guidance before you rely on a fact.
This is a sample, not the whole bank, and doing well on it does not predict an exam result.
The exam these questions prepare you for
DHA's CBT Guideline (cover "Updated - Sep 2026") lists 150 questions in a stated 3 hours for the General Dentist title, with a pass score of 60 percent. DHA says the stated time includes registration and the process introduction, and that it can change the format or the pass score without updating the guideline, so confirm on DHA's own site. DHA does not state how many answer options its questions have or whether each has one best answer. Meddex practice items use four options with one best answer, as a practice format.
DHA prints twelve coverage areas for the General Dentist title and no weights. Meddex groups related areas into eight dental subjects. The app lets you practise by subject.
What this set covers
This set has 12 dentist questions drawn from 8 of eight subjects: anaesthesia and pain, oral surgery, oral medicine and radiology, periodontics, endodontics, restorative dentistry, paediatric dentistry and orthodontics, and prosthodontics.
Questions are spread across the subjects, so you meet each one rather than five of the same kind. The set is fixed and chosen by a simple rule, so the same questions appear every time you come back.
How to use these questions
Read the stem and cover the options if you can, then decide what you would do. Choose an answer before you press Show answer. If you were wrong, read the reason for your option as well as the correct one, and write down the idea you missed.
Answer all the questions once without looking.
Press Show answer one question at a time and read every explanation.
List the subjects where you missed two or more, then use the topic pages or the app to practise those.
Practice questions
Question 1
Local Anaesthesia, Pain & Medical EmergenciesEasy
How much adrenaline is contained in one 1.8 mL cartridge of local anaesthetic with adrenaline 1:80,000?
AOption A: 45 micrograms
BOption B: 12.5 micrograms
COption C: 18 micrograms
DOption D: 22.5 micrograms
Show answer for question 1
Correct answer: D. 22.5 micrograms
A ratio of 1:80,000 means 1 g in 80,000 mL, so 1,000,000 micrograms / 80,000 = 12.5 micrograms per mL. In a 1.8 mL cartridge this is 12.5 x 1.8 = 22.5 micrograms. The figure of 18 micrograms is for 1:100,000, 45 micrograms is for two cartridges of 1:80,000, and 12.5 micrograms is the content of 1 mL only.
Why A is wrong. 45 micrograms is the content of two cartridges.
Why B is wrong. 12.5 micrograms is the amount in 1 mL, not a whole cartridge.
Why C is wrong. 18 micrograms is the content of a 1.8 mL cartridge at 1:100,000.
Topic: Adrenaline content of a cartridge. Reference: Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia
A 55-year-old has a 1.5 cm red and white patch on the floor of the mouth that has persisted for 3 months. You plan an incisional biopsy. Which technique is correct?
AOption A: Sample the necrotic centre of the lesion only
BOption B: Take only a superficial scraping from the white area, because the red area is only inflamed
COption C: Perform a brush cytology test in the surgery, because a negative result excludes dysplasia and avoids a scalpel biopsy
DOption D: Remove a wedge that includes the abnormal edge and normal tissue, avoiding any necrotic centre
Show answer for question 2
Correct answer: D. Remove a wedge that includes the abnormal edge and normal tissue, avoiding any necrotic centre
The specimen should be representative and include the transition from normal to abnormal tissue, because this shows the pattern of change, and it should be deep enough to include the epithelium and underlying connective tissue. Necrotic or ulcerated centres give non-diagnostic tissue. Biopsy of erythroleukoplakia is important because red areas carry a higher risk of dysplasia or carcinoma. Brush cytology cannot rule out dysplasia, and a negative result does not remove the need for histology. The tissue is placed in about ten times its volume of 10 percent neutral buffered formalin.
Why A is wrong. A necrotic centre contains dead tissue and often gives a non-diagnostic result.
Why B is wrong. A surface scraping misses the deeper layers where dysplasia and invasion are assessed.
Why C is wrong. A negative brush result does not exclude dysplasia, and histology is still required.
Topic: Technique of incisional biopsy. Reference: Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology (biopsy); Warnakulasuriya S et al. Oral potentially malignant disorders: A consensus report from an international seminar (J Oral Pathol Med 2007)
You are consenting a patient for a bilateral sagittal split osteotomy to set back the mandible for a skeletal class III. Which complication is most important to explain because it is the most common one?
AOption A: Altered sensation of the lower lip and chin from inferior alveolar nerve injury
BOption B: Permanent paralysis of the facial muscles
COption C: Permanent loss of taste on the anterior tongue
DOption D: Loss of vision
Show answer for question 3
Correct answer: A. Altered sensation of the lower lip and chin from inferior alveolar nerve injury
Because the inferior alveolar nerve runs within the ramus and is stretched or compressed during the split, some degree of lip and chin sensory change is common after the operation. Many cases improve over months, but a proportion is permanent, so it must be part of consent. Facial nerve weakness is usually transient and rare, loss of vision is a risk of maxillary and midface surgery, and chorda tympani injury does not typically occur at this site.
Why B is wrong. Facial weakness can occur but is rare and usually transient, and it is not the most common.
Why C is wrong. Taste loss is not a typical result of this osteotomy.
Why D is wrong. Visual loss is a very rare event related to midface surgery, not this osteotomy.
Topic: Consent for bilateral sagittal split osteotomy. Reference: Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (orthognathic surgery); Proffit WR, Fields HW, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics (surgical orthodontics)
Question 4
Oral Medicine, Pathology, Radiology & TMJMedium
A 72-year-old man has sore, red, fissured skin at both corners of his mouth for 2 months. His complete upper denture is loose and he sleeps in it. Palatal mucosa under the denture is red. Which management best addresses the cause?
AOption A: Topical miconazole to the corners and the denture, denture hygiene and renewal of the denture's fit, with a blood test if the problem persists
BOption B: Topical hydrocortisone cream alone to the corners, repeated until healed
COption C: Surgical excision of the skin folds at the corners of the mouth
DOption D: Systemic antibiotics for 10 days, because the condition is purely a bacterial infection of the skin of the lips and the denture plays no part in it
Show answer for question 4
Correct answer: A. Topical miconazole to the corners and the denture, denture hygiene and renewal of the denture's fit, with a blood test if the problem persists
Angular cheilitis is usually a mixed Candida and staphylococcal infection. In denture wearers, a low vertical dimension, loose dentures and saliva pooling in the folds are predisposing factors, and denture stomatitis often co-exists. Miconazole has activity against both yeasts and many Gram-positive bacteria, so it is a sensible first choice. Treating the denture reservoir, correcting the fit and removing the denture at night all matter. If it persists, check for iron, vitamin B12 and folate deficiency and diabetes. Steroid alone could worsen infection.
Why B is wrong. Hydrocortisone alone will not clear a fungal infection and may worsen it, unless combined with an antimicrobial.
Why C is wrong. Surgery is for exceptional cases of deep folds, not a first-line treatment.
Why D is wrong. Antibiotics alone ignore the Candida component and the denture cause.
Topic: Angular cheilitis in an older denture wearer. Reference: Scully C. Oral and Maxillofacial Medicine: The Basis of Diagnosis and Treatment; British Society for Oral Medicine: guidance on oral candidal infections
Question 5
Oral Medicine, Pathology, Radiology & TMJMedium
A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman has a constant burning sensation of the tongue and lips for 8 months, worse in the evening. The mucosa looks entirely normal. She takes an ACE inhibitor and has no dentures. Which step comes first?
AOption A: Prescribe topical clonazepam immediately, because burning with a normal-looking mucosa at this age is always burning mouth syndrome
BOption B: Refer for urgent biopsy of the tongue to exclude malignancy
COption C: Exclude candidiasis, haematinic deficiency, diabetes and drug effects before diagnosing burning mouth syndrome
DOption D: Reassure her that the symptom is imaginary and discharge her
Show answer for question 5
Correct answer: C. Exclude candidiasis, haematinic deficiency, diabetes and drug effects before diagnosing burning mouth syndrome
Burning mouth syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion: burning pain in clinically normal mucosa with no identifiable local or systemic cause. Before labelling it, check for Candida, iron, vitamin B12 and folate deficiency, diabetes, xerostomia, parafunctional habits, ill-fitting dentures and drug causes (an ACE inhibitor can cause burning or dry mouth, and a change by her doctor may help). Management then includes explanation, reassurance, avoiding irritants, and options such as topical clonazepam or cognitive behavioural therapy. Biopsy is not needed for normal mucosa. The symptom is real and distressing.
Why A is wrong. Topical clonazepam is an option once secondary causes are excluded, not before.
Why B is wrong. Biopsy of normal-looking mucosa is not indicated and has no diagnostic value here.
Why D is wrong. The condition is a recognised neuropathic pain syndrome, and dismissal is both wrong and unkind.
Topic: Burning mouth syndrome assessment. Reference: Scully C. Oral and Maxillofacial Medicine: The Basis of Diagnosis and Treatment; International Headache Society: International Classification of Headache Disorders (burning mouth syndrome)
Question 6
PeriodonticsMedium
A 29-year-old woman has 4 mm of recession on a lower canine. The recession extends beyond the mucogingival junction. Interdental bone and soft tissue are intact. She wants the root covered. Which Miller class is this, and what coverage can be expected with a suitable graft?
AOption A: Class III: only partial coverage can be expected
BOption B: Class II: complete root coverage can be expected
COption C: Class IV: no coverage can be expected
DOption D: Class I: complete root coverage can be expected
Show answer for question 6
Correct answer: B. Class II: complete root coverage can be expected
Miller classes depend on the relation to the mucogingival junction and on interdental tissue loss. Recession that reaches or passes the junction with no interdental loss is class II, and complete root coverage is predictable. Class I stays within the keratinised tissue, so it does not apply here. Class III has interdental loss or malposition and gives partial coverage. Class IV has severe interdental loss and no coverage is expected.
Why A is wrong. Class III needs interdental bone or soft tissue loss, which this patient does not have.
Why C is wrong. Class IV has severe interdental loss, so no coverage would be a wrong prediction here.
Why D is wrong. Class I stops short of the mucogingival junction, which is not the case here.
Topic: Gingival recession: Miller class and prognosis. Reference: Miller PD Jr. A classification of marginal tissue recession. Int J Periodontics Restorative Dent 1985; Cairo F et al. Clinical efficacy of root coverage procedures. J Clin Periodontol 2008
Question 7
EndodonticsMedium
A patient has a symptom-free upper first molar root-filled three years ago, with a periapical radiolucency on the mesiobuccal root. The root filling is short and poorly condensed, with a missed second canal, and the crown is well sealed. What is the treatment of first choice?
AOption A: Non-surgical retreatment, with identification and cleaning of the missed canal
BOption B: Long-term antibiotics to resolve the periapical lesion without disturbing the root filling
COption C: Extraction with an immediate implant, since a root-filled tooth with a lesion has failed
DOption D: Apicectomy of the mesiobuccal root at once, leaving the existing root filling in place
Show answer for question 7
Correct answer: A. Non-surgical retreatment, with identification and cleaning of the missed canal
Persistent apical periodontitis in a poorly obturated tooth with an untreated canal is most likely caused by residual infection in the root canal system. Orthograde retreatment addresses the cause directly by removing the filling, finding the missed canal, and disinfecting and refilling the system, and it conserves the tooth. Surgery cannot clean a canal system that is inaccessible, and is better kept for cases where retreatment is not possible or has failed. Antibiotics do not reach the infection, and extraction is unnecessary in a restorable tooth.
Why B is wrong. Antibiotics cannot reach infection inside necrotic canal systems and give no lasting benefit.
Why C is wrong. Extraction is a more destructive step than retreatment and is not needed for a restorable tooth.
Why D is wrong. Surgery only treats the root end, and the infection in the untreated canal remains.
Topic: Persistent disease after poor root filling. Reference: European Society of Endodontology quality guidelines for endodontic treatment (2006); Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen's Pathways of the Pulp (retreatment)
At the end of the session you have excess set and unset amalgam, extracted teeth with amalgam fillings and the contents of the suction filter. How should you dispose of this waste?
AOption A: Place it in the general office waste after wiping it with disinfectant, because the amount is too small to matter
BOption B: Place it in the autoclave with the instruments, so that it is sterile before disposal, as for other contaminated waste
COption C: Rinse it into the surgical sink with plenty of water, since the quantities are small
DOption D: Collect it in a sealed, labelled container for a licensed recycler, and fit an amalgam separator
Show answer for question 8
Correct answer: D. Collect it in a sealed, labelled container for a licensed recycler, and fit an amalgam separator
Mercury is a persistent environmental toxin, so amalgam is a controlled waste. Good practice, in line with the Minamata Convention on Mercury and WHO guidance, is to keep scrap in a sealed container, store it under water or a suitable cover, send it to a licensed waste carrier or recycler, and capture particles with an amalgam separator. Heating in an autoclave or incineration releases mercury vapour. Rinsing it into the drain contaminates water systems.
Why A is wrong. General waste goes to landfill or incineration, which release mercury into the environment, and disinfectant does not make amalgam safe.
Why B is wrong. Heating amalgam releases mercury vapour, and the autoclave is not designed for it, so it adds exposure for staff.
Why C is wrong. Draining amalgam sends mercury into the wastewater system, even in small quantities, and this is what a separator is designed to prevent.
Topic: Handling of amalgam waste. Reference: Minamata Convention on Mercury (United Nations Environment Programme), dental amalgam provisions; FDI World Dental Federation policy statement on dental amalgam and the Minamata Convention
Two weeks after a gold onlay was cemented in an upper molar, a patient reports a sharp, brief 'electric' pain whenever a metal fork touches the tooth, and when it touches the opposing lower amalgam. The tooth is otherwise comfortable and vital. What is the most likely explanation?
AOption A: A cracked cusp that opens when biting on hard food and closes on release
BOption B: Incomplete seating of the onlay, causing marginal leakage and a gap at the margin
COption C: A galvanic current between dissimilar metals in contact, with saliva as electrolyte
DOption D: Irreversible pulpitis caused by the heat and trauma of the preparation
Show answer for question 9
Correct answer: C. A galvanic current between dissimilar metals in contact, with saliva as electrolyte
Two different metals in contact or close to each other in a wet environment form a galvanic cell, with saliva as the electrolyte. The resulting small current stimulates the pulp and gives a sharp, momentary pain when a metal utensil bridges the two surfaces. It is recognised by its link with touching metal and by normal vitality, and often settles in time as the amalgam surface corrodes. It is not a progressive pulpal disease, which gives lingering pain unrelated to metal contact.
Why A is wrong. A cracked cusp gives pain on biting and on release, not an electric shock on touching a utensil.
Why B is wrong. Marginal leakage can give sensitivity to cold or sweet, not a shock related to metal contact.
Why D is wrong. Irreversible pulpitis gives lingering, spontaneous pain and does not come from contact with metal.
Topic: Galvanic pain between dissimilar metals. Reference: Anusavice KJ, Shen C, Rawls HR. Phillips' Science of Dental Materials (corrosion and galvanic action); Banerjee A, Watson T. Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry
Question 10
Paediatric Dentistry & OrthodonticsEasy
A 4-year-old attends for her first check-up and is quiet but clinging to her mother. You want to examine her teeth and take a first look at the mouth. Which behaviour management approach is most suitable?
AOption A: Hold her firmly in the chair and examine her quickly before she has time to get upset, then give a sticker for sitting still
BOption B: Explain the examination in full adult detail, including the risks of dental decay, so that she understands why it matters
COption C: Tell her what you will do in simple words, show her the mirror on her hand, do it gently, and praise her cooperation
DOption D: Take her into the surgery alone, without her mother, so that she does not copy her mother's anxiety about dental visits
Show answer for question 10
Correct answer: C. Tell her what you will do in simple words, show her the mirror on her hand, do it gently, and praise her cooperation
Tell-show-do introduces each step in simple words suited to the child's age, shows the instrument or item in a non-threatening way, and then does the step exactly as described, with praise for cooperation. It builds trust and a sense of control. Separation from the parent is not routine and often increases fear in a pre-school child, restraint without consent is unacceptable as a first approach, and long adult explanations are beyond what a 4-year-old can process.
Why A is wrong. Physical restraint is not an acceptable first-line approach and damages trust and cooperation.
Why B is wrong. A young child cannot use abstract adult information, and a long explanation may increase fear.
Why D is wrong. Routine separation of a pre-school child from the parent usually raises distress and is not the first approach.
Topic: Tell-show-do for an anxious young child. Reference: American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry: Behavior Guidance for the Pediatric Dental Patient; Welbury R et al. Paediatric Dentistry
Question 11
Prosthodontics & OcclusionMedium
A root-filled upper second premolar has lost its crown down to the gum margin, leaving about 0.5 mm of sound dentine above the gingiva all round. You plan a post, core and crown. What is the best way to improve the long-term prognosis?
AOption A: Place the crown margin on the core material only, because the core will act as the ferrule for the crown
BOption B: Gain at least 1.5 to 2 mm of sound tooth above the finish line before the crown
COption C: Choose a titanium post and cement it with a strong resin cement, which restores the tooth strength
DOption D: Use a longer and wider post so that the core is retained deeply in the root and resists fracture
Show answer for question 11
Correct answer: B. Gain at least 1.5 to 2 mm of sound tooth above the finish line before the crown
A ferrule is a collar of sound dentine surrounding the preparation, and about 1.5 to 2 mm of it above the crown margin markedly improves fracture resistance of root-filled teeth. A post retains the core and does not strengthen the root, and a wider post removes dentine. If too little tooth is present, create the height surgically or by orthodontic extrusion, or consider extraction. The core material cannot take the place of dentine.
Why A is wrong. A margin on core material gives no ferrule, because only tooth structure forms one.
Why C is wrong. No post material or cement can replace the lost tooth structure.
Why D is wrong. A longer, wider post removes more dentine and does not strengthen the tooth.
Topic: Ferrule for a root-filled tooth. Reference: Juloski J, Radovic I, Goracci C, Vulicevic ZR, Ferrari M. Ferrule effect: a literature review. J Endod 2012
Question 12
Prosthodontics & OcclusionEasy
A patient has lost all the lower teeth distal to both lower canines, with the canines and incisors present. How is the arch classified by the Kennedy system?
AOption A: Class II
BOption B: Class I
COption C: Class III
DOption D: Class IV
Show answer for question 12
Correct answer: B. Class I
Kennedy Class I has bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the remaining natural teeth (bilateral distal extension or free-end saddles). Class II has a unilateral free-end saddle, Class III a unilateral bounded saddle with natural teeth both anterior and posterior, and Class IV a single bilateral edentulous area crossing the midline, anterior to the remaining teeth. Applegate's rules govern how modification spaces are described and how the class is chosen, with the most posterior edentulous area determining the class.
Why A is wrong. Class II has a free-end saddle on only one side.
Why C is wrong. Class III is a bounded saddle with teeth on both sides.
Why D is wrong. Class IV is a single saddle crossing the midline in front of the remaining teeth.
Topic: Kennedy classification: bilateral free-end saddles. Reference: Kennedy E. Partial Denture Construction (1928) and Applegate OC rules for classification; McCracken's Removable Partial Prosthodontics
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Frequently asked questions
No. They are original practice questions written by Meddex for exam preparation. DHA does not publish sample questions, and its Assessment Manual says sharing assessment questions is not allowed, so we do not use or claim real or recalled items.
No. The dentist bank is smaller and still growing. Use it to practise by subject, and check DHA's own documents for the exam format.
No. It is a sample for practice and to spot gaps. Nothing here predicts a result. Practise across all subjects, review explanations and confirm exam details on the official sites.
No. Each question has a Show answer button. The answer, the explanation and the reason each wrong option is wrong are part of the page text, so they are there when you press it.
Not yet. Clinical review is still being arranged. Treat the explanations as study aids and check official guidance before you rely on a fact.